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Babylonian Talmud: Tractate NiddahFolio 32a— It is R. Meir. For it was taught: A minor, whether male or female, may neither perform, nor submit to halizah, nor contract levirate marriage; so R. Meir. They1 said to R. Meir: You spoke well when you ruled that they 'may neither perform, nor submit to halizah', since in the Pentateuchal section2 man3 was written, and we draw a comparison between woman and man.4 What, however, is the reason why they may not contract levirate marriage? He replied: Because a minor male might be found to be a saris;5 a minor female might be found to be incapable of procreation;6 and thus the law of incest7 would be violated where no religious act8 is thereby performed. And the Rabbis?9 — Follow the majority of minor males and the majority of minors are no sarisim; follow the majority of minor females, and the majority of minor females are not incapable of procreation.10 Might it not be suggested that R. Meir was heard [to take a minority into consideration only where that] minority is frequent; was he, however, heard [to maintain his view in regard to] an infrequent minority? — This also is a frequent minority, for it was taught: R. Jose stated, It happened at 'En Bol11 that the infant was made to undergo ritual immersion12 before her mother;13 and Rabbi stated, It once happened at Beth She'arim that the infant was made to undergo ritual immersion12 before her mother;13 and R. Joseph stated, It once happened at Pumbeditha that the infant was made to undergo ritual immersion12 before her mother;13 One can well understand the incidents spoken of by R. Joseph and Rabbi14 since [immersion was necessary as a protection for] the terumah15 of Palestine; but why was that necessary16 in the case spoken of by R. Joseph,17 seeing that Samuel had laid down: The terumah of a country outside the Land of Israel is not forbidden unless [it came in contact] with a person whose uncleanness emanated from his body,18 and this applies only to eating but not to contact?19 — Mar Zutra replied: This20 was required only in regard to anointing her with the oil of terumah;21 for it was taught: And they shall not profane the holy things of the children of Israel, which they set apart unto the Lord22 includes23 one who anoints oneself or drinks.24 But what need was there for a Scriptural text [for inclusion in the prohibition of] one who drinks, seeing that drinking is included in eating?25 — Rather [say that the text22 was intended] to include one who anoints oneself [in the same prohibition] as one who drinks.26 And if you prefer I might reply, The prohibition27 is derived from here: And it is come into his inward parts like water, and like oil into his bones.28 But if so29 should not our daughters also [be unclean from their cradle]? — For us who make a deduction of the use of 'and if a woman'30 instead of 'a woman' and [our daughters,] when observing any discharge are kept away,31 the Rabbis enacted no preventive measure; but as regards the Samaritans32 who do not make any deduction from the use of 'and if a woman'30 instead of 'a woman', and [their daughters] when observing any discharge are not kept away,31 the Rabbis enacted the preventive measure. What is the exposition of 'a woman', 'and if a woman'? — It was taught: [If it had been written,]33 'A woman', I would only know that a woman [is subject to the restrictions of menstrual uncleanness], whence could it be deduced that an infant one day old is also subject to the restrictions of menstruation? Hence it was explicitly stated, 'And if a woman'.33 Thus it is evident that in including a child Scripture included even one who is one day old. May not, however, an incongruity be pointed out: [If Scripture had only written,]34 'the woman' I would only know [that the restriction applies to] a woman, whence could it be derived that a child who is three years and one day old [is equally under the restrictions] in respect of cohabition? Hence it was explicitly stated, 'The woman also'?34 — Raba replied: These35 are traditional laws but the Rabbis tacked them on to Scriptural texts. Which one [can be deduced from] the Scriptural text and which is only a traditional law?36 If it be suggested that the law relating to an infant one day old is traditional and that the one relating to such as is three years and one day old is deduced from a Scriptural text, is not the text [it may be retorted] written in general terms?37 — Rather say: The law relating to one who is three years and one day old is traditional and the one derived from the text is that concerning an infant who is one day old. But since the former law is traditional, what was the purpose of the Scriptural text?38
Niddah 32b— To exclude a man from the uncleanness of a red discharge.1 But consider the following Baraitha:2 From the term of 'woman'3 I would only infer that a woman [is subject to the restriction of zibah], whence, however, could it be deduced that a female child that is ten days old4 is also subject to the restrictions of zibah? Hence it was explicitly stated, And if a woman.3 Now, what need was there for this text,5 seeing that the law could have been inferred from that of menstruation?6 — It was necessary. For if the All Merciful had written the law in regard to a menstruant only it might have been presumed that it applied only to the menstruant, since even if she observed a discharge on one day only she must continue unclean for seven days, but not to a zabah for whom, if she observed a discharge7 on one day, it suffices to wait only one day corresponding to it;8 hence the necessity for the second text. Then why should not the All Merciful write the law in regard to a zabah and there would be no need to give it again in regard to a menstruant, since one knows that there can be no zabah unless she was previously a menstruant? — That is so indeed. Then what was the need for the Scriptural text?9 — To exclude a man from the uncleanness of a red discharge.10 But was he not already once excluded?11 — One text serves to exclude him from the uncleanness of a discharge of red semen and the other from that of blood.The same law12 applies also to males. For it was taught:13 'A man, a man',14 what need was there for the repetition of 'man'? To include a male child one day old who also is to be subject to the uncleanness of zibah; so R. Judah. R. Ishmael son of R. Johanan b. Beroka said: This15 is not necessary, for, surely, Scripture says, Whether it be a man or a woman,16 'whether it be a man' implies any one who is man, whether adult or infant; 'or a woman' implies any one who is a female irrespective of whether she is adult or minor. If so, why was it expressly stated, 'a man, a man'?17 The Torah used an ordinary form of speech.18 Thus it is evident that in including a child Scripture included even an infant one day old. Does not, however, an incongruity arise: [If Scripture had only written]19 'a man' I would only know [that the law applied to] a man, whence could it be derived that it also applies to a child who is nine years and one day old? Hence it was explicitly stated, And a man?19 — Raba replied: These20 are traditional laws but the Rabbis found props for them in Scriptural texts. Which one is only a traditional law and which can be deduced from the Scriptural text? If it be suggested that the law relating to an infant one day old is traditional and that relating to a child who is nine years and one day old is deduced from a Scriptural text, is not the text [it could be objected] written in general terms?21 — Rather say: The law relating to a child who is nine years and one day old is traditional and the one relating to an infant one day old is derived from the Scriptural text. But, since the former is a traditional law, what was the purpose of the Scriptural text? — To exclude a woman from the uncleanness of a white discharge. What need was there for Scripture to write [an additional word22 and letter]23 as regards males and females respectively?24 — These were necessary. For if the All Merciful had written the law in respect of males only it might have been presumed that it applied to them alone since they become unclean by [three] observations25 [on the same day] as by [three observations on three successive] days,26 but not to females who do not become unclean by [three] observations [on the same day] as by [three observations on three successive] days. And if the All Merciful had written the law in respect of females alone, it might have been presumed to apply to them only, since they become unclean even if a discharge was due to a mishap but not to males who do not become unclean when a discharge is due to a mishap.27 [The additional letters and words were, therefore,] necessary. THE SAMARITANS IMPART UNCLEANNESS TO A COUCH UNDERNEATH AS TO A COVER ABOVE, What is meant by A COUCH UNDERNEATH AS A COVER ABOVE? If it be suggested to mean that if there were ten spreads28 and he sat upon them they all become unclean, is not this [it could be retorted] obvious seeing that he exercised pressure upon them?29 — The meaning rather is that a couch underneath one who had intercourse with a menstruant is subject to the same law of uncleanness as the cover above a zab.30 As the cover above a zab imparts uncleanness to foods and drinks only so does the couch underneath one who had intercourse with a menstruant impart uncleanness to foods and drinks only. Whence is the law concerning the cover above a zab deduced? — From the Scriptural text, And whosoever toucheth any thing that was under him shall be unclean.31 For what could be the meaning of 'under him'? - To Next Folio -
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